Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 23:58
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Opinion: The secret to a longer life could be this old-fashioned English breakfast - MarketWatch
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Trump’s tax bill could raise taxes on foreign companies, hurting investment from abroad - AP News
What's (not “whats”) the rule?